Who Is A Spiritual Jew?

Who Is A Spiritual Jew?

Ellen Kavanaugh
All children of Abraham are not Jews. Jews descend only from a later point in Abraham's line, from Jacob. This distinction is necessary because of Abraham's son Ishmael, whose line certainly isn't Jewish, even though they are descendants of Abraham.

"Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham." Galatians 3:7

We see here that Gentiles are referred to as children of Abraham because of their faith, but then, Abraham was promised he would be the father of many nations! Being a child of Abraham is not the same thing as being a spiritual Jew, however.
A spiritual Jew is any natural descendant of Jacob who accepts Yeshua as their Messiah. In Romans 2:28-29 (oft quoted to show believing Gentiles become Spiritual Jews), Sha'ul is not even addressing Gentiles. The passage begins in verse 17 (Behold, you are called a *Jew*, and rest in the law, and make your boast of God)-- showing clearly that Sha'ul is only addressing his Jewish brethren. Sha'ul begins by debunking the confidence of his fellows Jews who are relying on their Jewishness and Torah to save them. He explains that being circumcised (being Jewish) does not keep you from judgement, and is only beneficial if one keeps the whole law. Sha'ul points out in verse 25 that if you are circumcised (Jewish) but transgress Torah, it is equal to uncircumcision. Sha'ul then compares circumcision (Jewishness) to those who are uncircumcised (Gentiles)--- pointing out that if a Gentile kept whole law but lacked circumcision (conversion to Judaism), that his lack of circumcision would not condemn him. That's because conversion through physical circumcision doesn't save anyone (better read as 'Jewishness doesn't save').
Verse 28 is the verse that some mistaken use to show believing Gentiles are Jews. It reads:

"For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh."

This verse is defining Jewishness not by Torah and outward circumcision but by inward circumcision, the circumcision of the heart. Sha'ul concludes in vs 29 with:

"But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."

Hence the mistaken leap that Gentiles are spiritual Jews. This passage cannot be expounded to include Gentiles, since Sha'ul is specifically discussing onlyhis Jewish brethren. Sha'ul is not broadening the definition of Jewishness to include all, but rather, is limiting who among born Jews are spiritual Jews.
So what am I saying here? That what Sha'ul said about Jewish inward circumcision has no application for Gentiles? Absolutely not! Of course the passage of inward circumcision can be applied to Gentiles, but nowhere in the passage is Sha'ul making the leap that all who are circumcised of the heart become Jews. He was merely defining who were the spiritual Jews from among all the Jews.

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